Katie says the graph of y=8 . (1/2)^x is the same as the graph of f(x)=8 . (1/2)^x. Do you agree? Explain your reasoning.

Yes, the graph of y=[tex]8{\times}(\frac{1}{2})^{x}[/tex] is same as the graph of f(x)=[tex]8{\times}(\frac{1}{2})^{x}[/tex] because the right hand side of both the equations is equal that is [tex]8{\times}(\frac{1}{2})^{x}[/tex], therefore by substituting different values of x in both equations, we obtain the same graph.

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wifilethbridge wifilethbridge · Answer 2 · 2019-07-04T10:19:18+02:00

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Katie's Graph equation: [tex]y=8(\frac{1}{2})^x[/tex]

Another graph equation: [tex]f(x)=8(\frac{1}{2})^x[/tex]

Since the right hand side of both the equations of graphs are equal

So, Left hand side of both equations of graphs must be equal

So, : [tex]y=f(x)[/tex]

So, the graph of [tex]y=8(\frac{1}{2})^x[/tex] is the same as the graph of [tex]f(x)=8(\frac{1}{2})^x[/tex]

Refer the attached figure

Purple line : [tex]f(x)=8(\frac{1}{2})^x[/tex]

Red line : [tex]y=8(\frac{1}{2})^x[/tex]