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Sarah said that when you multiply two fractions that are both less than 1, you may sometimes get a product that is equal to or greater than 1. Is Sarah’s statement true? Why or why not?

HELP I DON'T KNOW HOW TO DO THIS AT ALL

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JannetPalos

Sarah's statement is false.

If a fraction is less than 1, it means that its numerator is less than its denominator.

So, if we multiply two fractions both are less than 1, then, numerators of both the fractions are less than their denominators.

Hence, in the resultant fraction, the numerator is less than the denominator and hence its value is less than 1.

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